2018-10-04 CIMA Factory v1810 Ready for Alpha testing! Scope ()Email Company () Select CompanyABBAkzoNobelartesanAutolivÅlöCity of Franklin - Fire DptCity of Franklin - Fire DptCity of Franklin, NHDaimlerddddfdfdfdfdfdEltekFrankeGivaudanIdeal StandardITESMKlosterfrauLandis+GyrLLCMercedes BenzNavicoNespressoNoricanNorsk GjenvinningSandvikSanta CasaTechtronicTresuTrioplastWheelabratorWrist Add New Country Select CountryArgentinaAustraliaAustriaBelgiumBrazilCanadaChileChinaColombiaCroatiaCyprusCzech RepublicDenmarkEgyptEstoniaFinlandFranceGermanyGreeceHong KongHungaryIcelandIndiaIndonesiaIranIrelandIsraelItalyJapanLatviaLiechtensteinLithuaniaLuxembourgMaltaMexicoNetherlandsNew ZealandNorwayOTHER (not listed)ParaguayPolandPortugalQatarRomaniaRussiaSaudi ArabiaSouth KoreaSpainSwedenSwitzerlandTaiwanThailandTurkeyUnited Arab EmiratesUnited KingdomUnited StatesUruguayVenezuela Industry Select IndustryA01 AgricultureA02 Forestry, FishingA03 Mining, QuarryingA04 PetroleumD01 Food, Beverages, TobaccoD02 Textiles, Clothing, LeatherD03 Wood, Wood ProductsD04 Publishing, Printing, MediaD05 Petroleum Products, Nuclear FuelD06 Chemicals, Chemical ProductsD07 Rubber, Plastic ProductsD08 Non-Metallic Mineral ProductsD10 Machinery, EquipmentD11 Electrical, Electronic EquipmentD12 Precision Instruments, MedicalD13 Automotive, Transport EquipmentD14 Other ManufacturingD15 Recycling, Waste ProcessingS01 Electricity, Gas, WaterS02 ConstructionS03 Wholesale, Retail TradeS04 Hotels, RestaurantsS05 Transport, Storage, CommunicationsS06 Finance, InsuranceS07 Business ServiceS08 Public Administration, DefenceS09 EducationS10 Health, Social ServicesS11 Community, Personal Service 1. Costing/E/Budgeting: How are budgets defined and costs understood? a) No solid budgets or low awareness; only few people can explain basic costs, hourly rates by cost center b) Budgets decided top-down; managers understand cost structure and work with teams to resolve variances c) Budgets based on historical data; managers can explain cost drivers, cost structure, allocation logic d) Budgets designed bottom-up based on actual data; managers readily explain cost model and draw driver trees e) Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) with continuous recording of data; even supervisors can explain drivers and logicInfo2. Costing/E/Control: How is overhead cost allocated? a) Focus on head count and output quantity; managers consider indirect labor and overhead as fixed costs b) Major cost categories tracked against budget; overhead applied as factor of direct labor or output quantity c) Direct labor tracked by cost center; overhead allocated using fixed percentages by multiple cost drivers d) Labor and overhead applied to processes and projects by actual consumption; even managers assign their time e) System provides total cost of ownership (TOC) or lifecycle cost (LCC) with overhead fully accounted forInfo3. Costing/E/Defects: How are defects and non-quality accounted for? a) Defects and delays not accounted for; non-performance costs are hidden or absorbed by functions b) Simple accounting of overtime and failures, such as expedites, complaints, corrections, returns, rework, scrap c) Resources firmly allocated in the budget for planned overtime, failures, lost hours, and accepted rework d) NPC tracked in accounting system; reports show cost of failures, returns, lost hours, rework or backflow e) COPQ calculated by system to account for future impact of failures, missed opportunities, lost ordersInfo4. Costing/E/Projects: How well are projects costed? a) Individual, high level costing; budget estimates for projects mainly based on past experiences or not at all b) Annual budget process with costs by silo; project budgets assigned to functions and subcontracted services c) Actual project costs tracked against business cases; firm goals for return on investment (ROI) or payback d) Multi-year portfolio balanced between silo-local-central; all charters with ROI and linked to strategic plan e) Central management of standard portfolio model and analytics; predictable ROI, dedicated project controllerInfo5. Costing/E/Review: How often are costs reviewed against budget and standards? a) Annually b) Quarterly c) Monthly d) Weekly e) DailyInfo6. Costing/E/System: How advanced is the costing system? a) Costs by business overall, determined without clear foundation, or not directly linked to product and services b) Costs by process or department; allocation is documented and transparent, based on consistent principles c) Costs by products and services, subdivided by customer; resource consumptions recorded for fair allocations d) All indirect costs amortized; billable time ratios calculated for each line of business under each manager e) Costs represented in total for all products and services; rates and unit costs extracted from the same dataInfo7. Efficiency/E/Control: How is efficiency controlled? a) Efficiency not directly measured or productivity calculated from other metrics, such as revenue per person b) Labor time or cycle time standards defined for main activities; first efficiency charts established c) Resource consumption tracked against standards in key areas; run charts show trend over several months d) Efficiency charts with firm goals for each function or line of business; time-per-unit is closely watched e) Efficiency continuously tracked by system for each area; any abnormality triggers formal management actionInfo8. Efficiency/E/Improvement: How well do people understand and reduce waste? a) Intuitively understand the concept of value and waste, but not formally trained to identify eight wastes (8W) b) Most people are trained and able to identify the 8 wastes, have organized their areas to reduce searching c) Regularly apply simple tools, like spaghetti chart, reducing obvious wastes, such as waiting, motion, rework d) Regularly apply advanced tools, such as VSM, reducing also invisible wastes in products, processes, behavior e) Involved in a holistic program to systematically reduce wastes built into strategy, structure, business modelInfo9. Efficiency/F/Conservation: How well are natural resources conserved? a) Resource conservation not actively pursued; no formal guidelines or conservation policies in place b) Conservation policy published and high-level reduction goals defined, but no structured program in place c) Conservation initiatives ongoing for energy and other key areas; updated savings report published regularly d) Comprehensive conservation program with traceable reduction in energy, materials, water, waste, emissions e) Full pursuit of resource conservation; benchmarking shows ecological footprint in top quartile of the industryInfo10. Efficiency/F/Flow: How well do materials flow? a) Items moved between disjoined areas by many material handlers; WIP is stored where space is available b) Items kept in standard inventory locations; WIP overflow occurs often when limits not defined or respected c) Items go from process to process, queue up until next step is ready; visual controls limit overproduction d) Items flow without WIP buildup; maximum one day in queue between any two processes to balance cycle times e) Continuous flow is standard, processes fully connected; only supermarkets and in/outbound docks hold itemsInfo11. Efficiency/F/Metric: How efficient is the factory? a) Work disrupted by breakdowns and shortages; barely anything goes right first time, poor efficiency (0-20%) b) Work planned and organized, but still characterized by waiting and double handling; low efficiency (20-40%) c) Processes and resources well managed, formal actions taken on defects and delays; basic efficiency (40-60%) d) Processes and resources well utilized, most work done right first time; consistently good efficiency (60-80%) e) Processes are highly reliable and predictable, pacemaker runs consistently at world-class efficiency (80-100%)Info12. Efficiency/F/Setups: How well is setup time defined and controlled? a) Setup time limits not defined or setup time not regularly measured; reduction techniques largely unknown b) Setup time measured for critical equipment with attempts to standardize, but not consistently controlled c) Setup times standardized, consistently measured and controlled; teams trained in rapid changeover techniques d) Setup times continuously tracked on control chart; all deviations from standards are formally addressed e) Setup process perfected and strictly controlled, SMED is standard; changeover time approaches physical limitInfo13. Efficiency/F/Value: How much value is added? What is the ratio between touch-time and lead-time? a) Value-add below 0.1%; waiting time is over 1000x longer than process times b) Value-add between 0.1% and 0.9%; waiting time is 500x longer than process time c) Value-add is between 1.0% and 2.9%; waiting time is 100x longer than process time d) Value-add between 3.0% and 9.9%; waiting time is 50x longer than process time e) Value-add is 10% and above; waiting time does not exceed 10x of process timeInfo14. Inventory/F/Amount: How much inventory is held between receiving dock and customer? a) Inventory is over 90 days; turns less than quarterly b) Inventory is 31-90 days of sales; turns monthly to quarterly c) Inventory is 10-30 days of sales; turns several times per month d) Inventory is 3-9 days of sales; turns weekly or within several days e) Inventory is 0-2 days of sales; turns within 48 hoursInfo15. Inventory/F/Classification: How is inventory defined and classified? a) Inventory not clearly defined or not well maintained; inventory reports are incomplete or cannot be trusted b) Inventory defined by status of completion; raw material (RM), work in process (WIP), finished goods (FG) c) Inventory defined by status and purpose; buffers and safety stocks calculated based on demand and supply risks d) Inventory defined by purpose and velocity; inventory report by ABC-classes lists runners, repeaters, strangers e) Inventory defined by velocity and value; inventory right-sized to cycle-time differences using ABC-XYZ matrixInfo16. Inventory/F/Control: How is process inventory controlled? a) WIP is not tightly managed or no limits defined; just basic controls used, such as cycle-counting b) WIP recorded on tally sheet or spreadsheet, limits defined for critical items, reported at least monthly c) WIP controlled by system; limits set for all items, status report by process available anytime from system d) Large, fast-moving, and critical WIP items are visually controlled, using lanes, lines, bins, cards, marks e) Visual WIP management is standard; no computers or reports required to understand status and levelsInfo17. Inventory/F/Flow: How much work in process (WIP) is waiting for the next step? a) Work centers managed separately, items pile up between workstations; 6 workdays or more WIP in queue b) Production is carefully planned, but inventory still builds up between stations; 3-5 days of WIP in queue c) Inventory controlled by visual or electronic system; items in flow used to level load, 1-2 days WIP in queue d) Min-max levels strictly enforced; items used to synchronize processes and cleared daily, WIP is below 1 day e) Virtually no WIP in queue due to continuous flow; process inventory only kept in supermarkets and flow lanesInfo18. Inventory/F/Locations: How many inventory items are stored in controlled locations? a) Inventory stored where space is available; hunting for parts is common, only people from area can find things b) First locations marked but not systematic, requires searching in multiple spots; 10% inventory is controlled c) Inventory organized in clusters, requires searching within category locations; 50% inventory is controlled d) Locations defined on item level, occasional double-touch when picking items; 90% inventory is controlled e) All items stored in defined areas, picked at first touch without searching; 100% inventory is controlledInfo19. Inventory/F/Obsolescence: How much inventory is slow or dead? a) Inventory is rarely talked about, obsolescence is unknown, or 10% inventory is expired or without demand b) Inventory aging is viewed as a problem; obsolescence averages around 5%, or varies between 3% and 10% c) Inventory aging is measured and critical items are controlled; obsolescence rate varies between 1% and 3% d) Disciplined part introduction and inventory management keeps obsolescence rate between 0.3% and 1% e) Virtually no slow-moving inventory through tightly managed process; less than 0.3% inventory is obsoleteInfo20. Inventory/F/Replenishment: How many inventory items have reorder points and safety stock levels defined? a) Inventory is managed by people; when something is missing, people go and get it b) 10% have safety stock levels defined; shortages and stock-outs frequently cause disruptions c) 50% have reorder points defined; occasional shortages and stock-outs cause some delays d) 90% kept between min-max levels, using reorder lines, return-bins, Kanban-cards or electronic system e) 100% strictly maintained between min-max levels, using visual control or fail-safe automatic systemInfo21. Inventory/F/Sequence: How many inventory withdrawals follow first-in first-out (FIFO) sequence? a) FIFO is unknown or not practiced; sequence of withdrawal not controlled b) FIFO is rule-based and not systematic; relies on people to maintain FIFO sequence c) FIFO is systemized but weak design or issues with discipline; 50% withdrawals follow FIFO sequence d) FIFO system is fail-safe for critical items and covers most locations; 90% withdrawals follow FIFO sequence e) FIFO system is fail-safe within lots, no bypass without manipulation; 100% withdrawals follow FIFO sequenceInfo22. Layout/E/Distance: Where are frequently-used items stored? How long to fetch them? a) Scattered around or stored away, requires internal transportation or searching; 10 minutes or more to fetch b) Designated areas might exist but not fully clear or not properly defined; 5 minutes to find and fetch items c) Locations clearly established but require some handling or transport over short distances; 2 minutes to fetch d) Most items stored in the area and close to the point of use; few steps of walking or 1 minute to fetch items e) Most items stored within reach, accessible on the spot within 10 seconds from pick location at minimal motionInfo23. Layout/E/Overview: How long does it take to collect status information for a complete overview? a) Poor transparency; many walls and areas, requires several people 1 hour or more to collect status information b) Low transparency requires 20 minutes pulling reports from system and walking around to get full status update c) Moderate transparency; few walls between processes and effective reports allow for status update in 10 minutes d) Good transparency overall; visual tools and real-time management systems allow for status update in 5 minutes e) Full transparency; windows, cameras, and real-time status monitors allow end-to-end overview within secondsInfo24. Layout/F/Ergonomics: How well are workstations designed? a) Workstations put together with little consideration of ergonomics; heavy lifting or physical strain is normal b) Workstations with well-established positions; movements often tiring when performed over entire shift or day c) Workstation design meets basic industrial standards; requires extra movements at comfortable range of motion d) Workstation design is efficient; common items within reach, max two activities outside assigned area per shift e) Ergonomic design; items accessible on the spot at minimal motion; workers only leave workstations for breaksInfo25. Layout/F/Flow: How effective is the layout to support flow? a) Layout unplanned or evolved over time with little consideration of material flow and information needs b) Outdated or inefficient layout used in the best possible way; homegrown tools and workarounds improve flow c) Layout based on scientific traffic analysis; consistently good efficiency, while several flow barriers remain d) Layout without barriers and spaces flexibly used; work flows without inventory buildup but not yet continuous e) Layout designed for continuous flow; space fully flexibilized and quickly reconfigurable; hardware on wheelsInfo26. Layout/F/Structure: How effectively is the factory structured? a) Plant without clear structure; territories not defined or demarcated; items stored where space is available b) Process villages in separate buildings, moving batches of semi-finished goods between disjointed areas c) Process villages collocated, main activities in one building, but still disconnected by walls, rooms, stores d) Process organized into lines or cells; each supervisor can overlook his area from a single observation point e) Open plant design with see-through layout allows visual control end-to-end from a single observation pointInfo27. Leadership/E/Decisions: Who leads the management team and makes key decisions? a) Weak or unstable leadership, unclear direction, key decisions pending, or unclear responsibilities within team b) Leader provides clear direction and priorities; team responsible for implementation, some coordination issues c) Team coordinates work and escalates decisions to the leader that they are not authorized or qualified to make d) Team qualified to make all relevant decisions; leader stays involved because authority not fully delegated yet e) Team fully empowered, defines goals and controls resources; leader works mainly as strategist and coachInfo28. Leadership/E/Deployment: How well is strategy defined and executed? a) Senior management decides on goals, but leaves workforce with little understanding on how to achieve them b) Goals defined and communicated to all levels, but not all priorities aligned and initiatives properly funded c) Initiatives resourced, priorities clear, goals cascaded; everyone knows what is important and what to do next d) Policy deployment formalized; X-matrix links goals, tactics, teams, technology, projects, rewards to strategy e) Policy deployment entrenched; X-matrix for next 5+ years guides all organizational objectives and incentivesInfo29. Leadership/E/Feedback: How often do leaders receive formal feedback from their staff on their performance? a) Leaders do not receive regular feedback, other than clarifying questions and status updates from their staff b) Leaders hold feedback meetings, at least annually, discussing what they do well and personally improve on c) Leaders openly share personal goals and development plans to get formal feedback and support from their staff d) Leaders collect formal feedback from their staff and receive 360-degree performance review at least annually e) Leaders update their development plans with stakeholders and review progress quarterly with a coach or mentorInfo30. Leadership/E/Focus: What do leaders focus on? a) Most time spent coordinating daily activities (90%); only little time left to think about improvements (10%) b) Daily activities still dominate the agenda (70%), while some time reserved for improvement projects (30%) c) Half time spent on running the daily business (50%), and equal time spent on improving the future (50%) d) Fulfilling daily needs requires just few hours (30%), so that most time is available to execute strategy (70%) e) Little time required for daily business (10%), most time spent forward-looking, on future opportunities (90%)Info31. Leadership/E/Orientation: What is the planning horizon and how robust are published plans? a) Daily urgencies and expedites dominate; long-term plans missing, not robust, or priorities frequently change b) Short-term orientation with focus on daily issues, spending and output, to meet financial objectives c) Medium-term orientation with focus on key strategic projects, quarterly performance, and annual budgets d) Trading short-term gains for long-term benefits; plan defines strategic tradeoffs and performance dip or loss e) Long-term strategy is robust and tactical plan kept flexible; allowing team to act on emerging opportunities Info32. Leadership/E/Priorities: How are priorities defined? a) Priorities change frequently; people are used to adjust their daily schedules according to latest urgencies b) Priorities set top-down by senior management, imposed rather than agreed to; reason for change often unclear c) Priorities discussed and agreed; senior managers control resources, teams are responsible for implementation d) Priorities aligned and managed by teams; senior managers approve resources and provide steering assistance e) Priorities controlled by each empowered team and do not require approval; senior managers provide guidanceInfo33. Leadership/E/Projects: How are internal projects governed? a) Most projects managed ad-hoc, informally, or in isolation with limited governance or executive sponsorship b) Key projects seen as strategic, subsumed within existing structure; charters missing or low data quality c) Enterprise project management, basic charter and governance model; limited analysis without ROI projection d) Projects quantitatively managed with solid ROI projection; monthly statistics reported for executive decisions e) Projects managed as strategic portfolio; funding and priorities driven by corporate vision, part of X-matrixInfo34. Leadership/E/Structure: How well are values, vision, mission, strategy, and actions defined and aligned? a) Lack of vision, strategy unclear or changes frequently; people have different views on priorities and future b) Top-down ambitions by senior management; weak alignment process causes disconnects and resource shortages c) Vision, mission, strategy, goals defined and aligned, but lack of solid roadmaps cause suboptimal execution d) All employees can explain vision and mission; detailed roadmaps published with goals cascaded to each level e) Goal setting is automatic and performance dialog part of culture; full alignment between plans, teams, strategyInfo35. Maintenance/F/Activities: What is the ratio between planned and unplanned maintenance activities? a) Unreliable equipment or infrastructure cause 80% unplanned interventions and 20% planned maintenance b) Frequent equipment issues reduce throughput; 40% unplanned interventions and 60% planned maintenance c) Maintenance is well planned but breakdowns still cause delays; 20% activities unplanned and 80% planned d) Equipment runs efficiently, stoppages rarely impact output; 10% activities unplanned and 90% planned e) Equipment runs reliably; 5% of maintenance orders for interventions and 95% for scheduled overhaulsInfo36. Maintenance/F/Availability: What is the availability of key equipment? a) Equipment frequently unavailable; down for 1 hour average per shift, 90% available when needed, class-one b) Equipment occasionally unavailable; 5 minutes downtime per shift, 99% available when needed, class-two c) Equipment in good condition; 30 seconds downtime per shift, 99.9% available when needed, class-three d) Reliable equipment; 3 seconds downtime per shift or 1 hour per year, 99.99% availability, class-four e) Highly reliable equipment; 0.3 sec downtime per shift or 5 minutes per year, 99.999% availability, class-fiveInfo37. Maintenance/F/Data: How is maintenance effectiveness measured? a) Downtime of key equipment not tracked or downtime data not readily available b) Few data on downtime of key equipment and none on overall equipment efficiency (OEE) c) Consistent downtime records, OEE chart with details on accidents, breakdowns, contamination, defects (ABCD) d) OEE reported with robust ABCD-analysis; meantime between failures (MTBF) calculated for main failure modes e) OEE, MTBF, and mean time to repair (MTTR) actively used to drive improvements, OEE target firmly set above 80%Info38. Maintenance/F/Delegation: Which maintenance tasks do operators feel responsible for? a) I work the best I can until the equipment stops; I am calling maintenance when I cannot fix the problem myself b) I clean to inspect; I am cleaning my equipment daily at least up to head height and remove all foreign matters c) I inspect to detect; because I keep my equipment spotless clean, I easily see issues, leaks, and loose screws d) I detect to repair; I am inspecting my equipment daily against checklists, and fix potential issues right away e) I repair to prevent; I perform root-cause analysis and lead solution teams to implement preventive measuresInfo39. Maintenance/F/Response: How do people respond to breakdowns? a) Response expected but no formal process defined; often takes hours until someone attends equipment failures b) Breakdown tickets issued; maintenance personnel take charge and sign-off tickets after repairs are completed c) Downtime metric owned by maintenance team; response process defined for critical and common failure modes d) Response process defined per SLA for common or 50% fail-modes; formal root cause analysis for major breakdowns e) Zero downtime goal; response process for 90% fail-modes; all unplanned stops converted into improvement tasksInfo40. Maintenance/F/Responsibility: Who is responsible for maintenance? a) Maintenance responsibilities not clearly assigned; maintenance team focuses on restoring operating conditions b) Maintenance technicians responsible for machines; eliminating sources of contamination and major breakdowns c) Operators improve availability; handle basic maintenance or 30% of tasks; cleaning, lubrication, inspection d) Qualified operators perform at least 60% of all maintenance tasks per AM-standard, validated by a technician e) Certified operators do all regular maintenance or 90% of tasks per AM-standard; technicians perform repairsInfo41. Maintenance/F/Speed: What is the average response time to major breakdowns? a) Response takes a day or longer; too many breakdowns or insufficient resources make response process slow b) Response time is several hours; breakdowns often unnoticed or operators are waiting for help c) Response time is 1 hour average; breakdown triggers response with some delay d) Response time is 10 minutes average; process is repeatable and accountability clearly established e) Response within 2 minutes for 90% of all events; response time is recorded and tightly controlledInfo42. Maintenance/F/System: Is there a process and system to prevent breakdowns? a) Maintenance plans not formalized or limited to cleaning and inspection; poor or missing downtime records b) Maintenance plans for critical equipment posted or controlled by system; downtime records not yet consistent c) Maintenance plans controlled by system for all equipment in the critical path; consistent downtime records d) Maintenance system fully deployed, machines tagged, plans posted, checklists updated, no major jobs pending e) Maintenance system fully effective; jobs completed on time, charts show positive trend for OEE, MTBF, MTBRInfo43. Management/E/Actions: How effectively do managers take action? a) Managers are too busy to recognize problems early; mainly coordinating responses to urgencies and breakdowns b) Managers recognize issues, but have little time left to address them; many plans show deviations and delays c) Managers take action, but consequences not firmly set for missing expectations, causing inconsistent results d) Managers address all issues within few days; consequence management standardized; all major issues resolved e) Managers address 90% issues on the same day; discipline and responsiveness of all staff is consistently highInfo44. Management/E/Appraisals: How effective are performance appraisals? a) No formal feedback; employee performance evaluations not documented, incomplete, or older than two years b) Formal review with focus on reporting or one-way feedback; reviews often done late or considered a formality c) Appraisals done on time; simple development plans issued with comments what each member should improve on d) Robust appraisal process with focus on people development; firm goals and plans followed up twice per year e) Quarterly one-to-one performance review for everyone; evaluations linked to reward system and training planInfo45. Management/E/Decisions: How do senior managers prioritize and decide? a) Decisions mainly driven by unforeseen shortages and breakdowns; managers do all they can to make the numbers b) Decisions mainly driven by financial reports; focus on sales and cost, and restoring customer relationships c) Decisions driven by constraints and deviations; ongoing initiatives focus on improving cost and capability d) Decisions driven by opportunities; short-term challenges resolved, focus set on achieving long-term objectives e) Decisions driven by 5+ year plan; focus on optimizing business model; social responsibility aspects consideredInfo46. Management/E/Interaction: How often do managers reach out to connect with direct reports? a) Managers rarely get in touch with their direct reports; team members typically go to their leads for decisions b) Managers follow up with their direct reports several times per month to check status or in case of problems c) Managers connect with their teams several times per week to collect status information and provide direction d) Managers connect daily with their team to update each other; the exchange happens as one group or individually e) Managers use short interval leadership; connect with each team member individually each day to provide supportInfo47. Management/E/Interfaces: How well are interfaces managed? a) No regular feedback between departments; managers blame each other for poor results and missed targets b) Internal breakdowns discussed, but informal process and lack of standards and metrics; most issues repeat c) Internal service level tracked and major issues addressed, but weak standards or slow actions cause glitches d) Service level agreements (SLA) between teams, regularly tracked and improved; goals met with few exceptions e) Satisfaction index consistently high; internal and external complains treated equally; proactive towards risksInfo48. Management/E/Projects: How mature is project management? a) Ad-hoc and occasionally chaotic; successes due to individual heroic effort; cost, schedule, scope problems b) Abbreviated; few are formal; success due to management push but largely unpredictable; cost, schedule problems c) Organized; standard process and coordination among groups, success predictable; minor cost and schedule issues d) Managed; diligent prioritization; success consistent; project metrics drive management decisions; all on track e) Optimized; project feedback drives learning; success is norm and cost-schedule performance is continuously topInfo49. Management/E/Recognition: How are people recognized? (previously: "Incentives" now replaced by "Recognition") a) None; people are expected to do a good job without special feedback; no complaint means the job was well done b) Inconsistent; mainly top-down tenure-based, recognition practices and criteria vary largely, some tokens given c) Standardized; practices and programs defined, top-down and peer-to-peer; increased transparency and visibility d) Reinforced; leaders communicate desired behaviors and goals, consistently recognize employees for achieving them e) Strategic; leaders as role-models, most employees get regular motivating feedback, rewards seen as prestigiousInfo50. Management/F/Safety: How mature is safety management? a) Vulnerable; managers accept that things happen; near misses not reported; superficial incident investigation b) Reactive; managers focus on avoiding repeat incidents; some incidents reported, pre-inspection cleanups done c) Compliant; managers focus on preventing incidents before they occur; hot spots contained, near-miss reported d) Proactive; managers treat safety as a system with everyone involved; high awareness, quickly reporting issues e) Resilient; safety culture with one safety improvement per employee per year; operating safety corridor definedInfo51. Metrics/E/Alignment: How well are metrics defined and goals aligned? a) Metrics missing or measures without meaning; only few people can explain how they can support company goals b) Some numerical goals defined and spot performance tracked by department, but not tied into the business plan c) Metrics tied to business objectives, but measurement not yet stable or teams cannot directly influence numbers d) Metrics standardized and linked to roadmap, tracking quality, delivery, cost, people (QDCP) against firm goals e) Metrics integrated into management system; changes on team metric drive predictable changes on business levelInfo52. Metrics/E/Effectiveness: How effectively do numbers drive decisions? a) Most decisions based on opinions, past experiences and best guesses; only few are based on validated data b) Data collected, but not timely or not in proper format to support decision-making; few data drive actions c) Data support decisions, using simple tools such as Pareto, but metrics not yet robust or definitions change d) Robust metrics and statistics consistently trigger daily decisions and formal problem-solving activities e) Metrics are highly effective; data policy ensures that all reports drive decisions or else being eliminatedInfo53. Metrics/E/Parameters: Which parameters are measured and reported at least quarterly? a) Simple, easy to measure indicators, such as sales and headcount b) Output, quality, delivery or service level, and basic financial indicators, such as sales and cost c) Output, quality, delivery, cost by category, operating efficiency or productivity in output per resource unit d) Output, quality, delivery, cost by process, efficiency or productivity, and process capability Cp or Cpk e) Output, quality, delivery, cost, efficiency, productivity, capability, skill score, and customer satisfactionInfo54. Metrics/E/Projects: How is project performance measured? a) Work organized into projects with basic costs assigned; management decisions made ad-hoc, project by project b) Projects compiled into portfolio database, force-ranked using a single parameter; delivery and cost tracked c) Benefits quantified, schedule adherence against milestones or buffer size tracked; ranking by cost-benefit d) System quantifies portfolio value, project buffer, risks, interdependencies, return by deployed resource hour e) Project portfolio management integrated into central systems for finance, planning, learning, and improvementInfo55. Metrics/E/Purpose: What are metrics used for? a) Metrics not actively used; managers are more interested in actions than numbers, busy with handling exceptions b) Metrics used for reporting; managers get together to review latest numbers and discuss actions; goals not firm c) Metrics used for controlling; managers set goals and meet at least monthly to discuss trends, reasons for gaps d) Metrics used for steering; managers use leading metrics for forecasting and lagging metrics to steer resources e) Metrics used for renewal; managers use insights from metrics and statistics to create a competitive advantageInfo56. Metrics/E/Review: How often is performance reviewed? a) Performance reviewed when there is a problem; no regular performance reviews meetings scheduled in calendar b) Monthly review of requirements and issues; focus is on troubleshooting problems and updating work schedules c) Weekly review of requirements, resources, results (3R) against goals and standards; plans updated after review d) Daily review of hits & misses and weekly 3R relative to plan and standards, using scoreboards and trend charts e) Performance automatically monitored; status transparent at all times; any deviation triggers a formal actionInfo57. Quality/E/Expectations: How well does quality meet customer expectations? a) Quality is below expectations, customer requirements not well understood or not fully met; frequent complaints b) Quality actively managed; meets expectations most times, but defects and instabilities still cause disruptions c) Quality consistently meets expectations, problems limited to occasional glitches; no major issues pending d) Reliable, repeatable processes; few issues quickly solved, quality and customer satisfaction consistently high e) Competitive advantage with strong evidence of improving market share due to superior quality and reliabilityInfo58. Quality/E/Management: How is process quality managed? What tools are used? a) Managers more concerned about output than process; reasons for problems unknown or data not readily available b) Managers actively monitor conditions and identify problems using tally charts, checklists, and Pareto analysis c) Managers steer quality improvement programs, use PPA or ANOVA to identify common and special cause variations d) Critical-to-quality (CTQ) factors well managed, only minor issues, short-term variability within control bands e) Strong process focus, noise and special cause variations well understood; long-term variability under controlInfo59. Quality/E/Maturity: How mature are key processes? a) Unstable; processes are largely undocumented, ad-hoc, reactive, sometimes chaotic, often require firefighting b) Repeatable; processes are documented and most steps are repeatable, but inconsistent results or low discipline c) Defined; processes confirmed as standards with evidence of continuous improvement, best practices established d) Managed; processes are quantitatively managed according to agreed metrics; process capability is established e) Optimizing; processes fully stable and repeatable; perfecting performance through improvement and innovationInfo60. Quality/E/Organization: How is quality organized and embedded in the company structure? a) Quality assumed in order, standards unclear or missing, or ownership not assigned; emphasis on sorting output b) Quality role assigned, responsible for inspecting, testing, sorting, correcting issues to meet requirements c) Quality manager approves standards and monitors compliance; emphasis on sampling and reporting quality d) Quality officer involved in strategy and customer affairs; emphasis on reducing variability and reoccurrences e) Quality on board of directors; quality is strategic and on executive agenda; emphasis on process excellenceInfo61. Quality/E/System: How mature is the quality system? a) People are generally not aware of quality standards; using buzzwords about quality without deeper meaning b) Stagnant quality documents, updated before audit or after a major problem; people aware of basic standards c) Simple containment system based on QCP with recognition of SPC; fail-Pareto and basic control charts posted d) Correction and prevention system based on statistics; all alerts on charts trigger formal root-cause analysis e) Quality system fully deployed; robust quality standards and capability index for all repetitive processesInfo62. Quality/F/Capability: How capable is the factory value chain? a) Persistent quality issues; 31% yield or not measured and 69% backflow; 0.33 capability or 1-sigma quality b) High variability; 69% throughput yield, 31% items require extra attention; 0.67 capability or 2-sigma quality c) Quality is controlled; 93% throughput yield or 7% handled multiple times; 1.00 capability or 3-sigma quality d) Quality is stable; 99.4% throughput yield or 1 of 167 items touched twice; 1.33 capability or 4-sigma quality e) Quality approaching perfection; 99.98% throughput yield or 1 of 5000 fail; 1.67 capability or 5-sigma qualityInfo63. Quality/F/Control: How is quality controlled? a) Ineffective controls; unreliable quality data or standards missing; or not all output checked before delivery b) Basic controls for inbound and outbound quality, focus on sorting and correcting; improvements mainly informal c) In-process work checked against standards; quality data posted; defects trigger formal root-cause analysis d) Metric-driven quality; capability (Cpk) tracked on control charts; correlation between quality, delivery, cost e) Internal quality correlates with customer satisfaction over 80%; critical human interfaces are mistake-proofInfo64. Readiness/E/Attitude: What is the general attitude towards change? a) I always have done it this way, I never did it that way, or I see no reason to change b) I think that change is needed but elsewhere in the organization; the others should change or do something c) I see the need for change but I am not sure where to start, let me know what to do; we should do something d) I can see what we need to improve and I am getting actively involved to change what we have today e) I actively search for opportunities, take charge and lead change because I see it as the engine of our successInfo65. Readiness/E/Employees: How do frontline employees act and behave? a) Prefer the way it is, oppose change, search for reasons to stop it, or voice sarcastic comments in meetings b) Interested to learn but not self-starting; some people helped managers developing new methods and standards c) Guided by a manager, learned an entirely new process, updated a procedure, or trained coworkers in new methods d) Self-starting and cross-skilled; handle all primary tasks in their area and develop related training manuals e) Qualified leading improvement teams, conducting trainings, and guiding visitors when supervisor not availableInfo66. Readiness/E/Leadership: How capable are leaders to initiate and implement change? a) Many years in the same position, rely on what they know, prefer the way it is, not experienced leading change b) Initiate programs and allocate resources, but unable to provide much support, or prefer hands-off approach c) Provide structure, resources, and professional input; lead steering committees but often decision bottlenecks d) Effective change agents, trained in change management, highly skilled in designing roadmaps and lead programs e) Recognized authorities in transforming organizations, known for pushing boundaries, speak at major conferencesInfo67. Readiness/E/Managers: How do managers and supervisors approach change? a) Prefer the way it is, see no need to change, fear or resist change, push back to protect the status quo b) Realize the need for change, but slow in taking action or not sure where to start, or change not formalized c) Define change projects and quickly approve resources, while delegating implementation to project teams d) See leading change as part of their job, design program and roadmaps, and have firm tasks assigned in projects e) Spent more time leading change than on daily activities; calendar shows majority time dedicated to programsInfo68. Readiness/E/Phase: Where do key people stand? a) Resistance; I know something is changing and do not like it, want to stop it because I believe this is trouble b) Awareness; I know what is coming and will do what is asked of me, but not fully convinced that this is helpful c) Engagement; I trust that the direction is right and support the change, but have not yet seen a benefit for me d) Commitment; I drive the change because I believe that it makes sense, is good for the company and good for me e) Conviction; I initiate new changes, even if difficult at first, because I believe it is the engine of successInfo69. Readiness/E/Professionals: How capable are professionals in process analysis and system design? a) Experimental approach based on trial and error; know what works by experience but cannot always explain why b) Structured approach to scientific work; fact-based decision-making based on averages, percentages and trends c) Analytical approach to scientific work; scenario-planning models created based on robust statistical data sets d) Scientific abstraction; regularly applying testable hypothesis, design of experiments, and forecasting models e) Broad knowledge acquisition, estimation and interference modelling, experts regularly publish research resultsInfo70. Readiness/E/Resourcing: How many resources have been committed to continuous improvement? a) Requirements unclear or resources not committed; there is hope to do improvements in parallel to daily jobs b) Improvement program in place with clear ambitions in mind, but lacks critical resources for its execution c) Funds and people allocated to key projects or task force, but not part of a permanent improvement structure d) Budgets and at least 1% employee-hours assigned to build capability as part of continuous improvement program e) Program is strategic pillar; over 2% resources assigned; senior team remove barriers, solve structural issuesInfo71. Readiness/E/Skills (potential for removal): How skilled are knowledge workers in lean and process management? a) Lean used as buzzword without deeper meaning, or as synonym for cost reduction or tightly controlled resources b) Gained insights from media, peers, or training programs; but cannot differentiate value from incidental work c) Analyze deviations in the context of the three losses (3L) waste, strain, variability or (3M) muda, muri, mura d) Apply theory of constraints (TOC) in combination with flow, takt, pull, and leveling to eliminate bottlenecks e) Use value stream mapping (VSM), as part of annual planning process, to break through performance barriersInfo72. Readiness/E/Urgency: What is the sense of urgency to change? a) Conditions and performance viewed in order; no major problem acknowledged, therefore no reason to change b) Problems openly acknowledged and first steps taken with focus on quick wins, but vision not yet established c) Isolated, bottom-up initiatives ongoing; simple vision and strategy in place; high-goals broadly communicated d) Solid program with empowered teams take broad-based actions, continuously delivering gains through change e) Consolidating gains and producing more change; anchoring new approaches in culture; change embraced as assetInfo73. Renewal/E/Approach: What approach is used to improve performance? a) Large projects initiated from the top, such as new machine or IT system; no formal improvement process in use b) Internal suggestions drive spot-fixes and random activities; not tied to improvement program or business plan c) Simple projects tied into a program, following a consistent method and goals defined, but actions often slow d) Improvement program is part of business plan; cross-functional process, disciplined follow-up, no major gaps e) Improvement is systematic and continual; CI anchored in organizational matrix, reporting directly to the topInfo74. Renewal/E/Impact: How effectively is performance improved and impact achieved? a) No improvement, key indicators show unfavorable trend, such as declining performance or shrinking margins b) Yoyo, up-and-down, or trend remains flat despite improvement efforts; performance not stable, not predictable c) Flat and stable, improvements offset unfavorable effects; performance in key areas is predictable, in control d) Positive trend for most key indicators; improvement efforts show favorable impact with some minor deviations e) All key indicators show favorable trend; improvement efforts increase sales or market share and profitabilityInfo75. Renewal/E/Improvement: How effectively is performance improved? a) Team was busy with day-to-day work; no time left to think about improvements; processes unchanged for years b) Team applied spot-fixes, reorganized people, rearranged equipment, installed boards, shelves, service stations c) Team improved workflow and updated procedures, significantly reducing efforts and errors by double-digit% d) Team doubled efficiency or halved defect rate of at least one core process by redesigning method or flow e) Team achieved a major breakthrough, transformed a value-stream from demand to delivery, tripling performanceInfo76. Renewal/E/Involvement: How strong is the relationship with third parties to create win-wins? a) Customer complaints and difficult vendor relationships; tasks limited to buying, expediting, trouble shooting b) Team is open to suggestions but not actively seeking input from third parties; improvements driven from within c) Several meetings with customers, vendors, consultants helped redesigning key processes with measurable gains d) Strong bond with customers and vendors; sharing resources that work joint projects to improve shared metrics e) Joint ventures with key customers and vendors; sharing strategy and systems allow anticipating customer needsInfo77. Renewal/E/Projects: How well are projects defined and delivered? a) Projects tend to be ad-hoc and occasionally chaotic; plans abandoned during periods of instability or crisis b) Project management principles defined, while execution still differs considerably from project to project c) Project charter and standards for planning, implementation, controlling with consistent but tailored delivery d) Project management integrated into decision-making model and IT system; dashboard and reports fully automated e) Continuous project alignment with top business objectives; project management system used to execute strategyInfo78. Renewal/E/Resourcing: How many people are involved in continuous improvement? a) Resources assigned ad-hoc to fix processes, correct quality problems, and act on customer complaints b) Some people spent time on improvement projects, but resources for continuous improvement not budgeted c) 10% employees involved in improvement projects, coordinated by a dedicated project or program manager d) 50% employees have tasks in improvement projects or were part of improvement teams in past 12 months e) 90% employees have tasks assigned in projects; consider improvements as part of their job, not extra workInfo79. Renewal/E/Suggestions: How many suggestions have been implemented? a) Employee suggestions not formally managed; improvements mainly handled by managers or specialists b) Basic suggestion scheme, some ideas submitted, but less than one idea implemented per employee per year c) 1 suggestion implemented per employee per year; feedback is formal and successes are celebrated d) 3 suggestions implemented per employee per year; everyone feels empowered to act on opportunities e) 10 suggestions or more implemented per employee per year; most people are capable to lead improvement teamsInfo80. Service/E/Commitments: How well are commitments met and promised dates kept? a) Regularly missed; no accountability or people try to justify reasons for misses; 2.5-sigma delivery or 84% OTDC b) Frequently missed; some people feel responsible and establish a sense of urgency; 3-sigma delivery or 93% OTDC c) Commitments usually met with extra effort, overtime, expedites, or workarounds; 3.5-sigma delivery or 98% OTDC d) Most commitments met without extra effort by following established procedures; 4-sigma delivery or 99% OTDC e) Performance culture; track record of consistently meeting commitments; 4.5-sigma delivery or 99.9% OTDCInfo81. Service/E/Delivery: How satisfied are external customers with service and delivery? a) Poor service level from unpredictable processes; customers are frustrated about delays and seek alternatives b) Low service level from unreliable processes; customers complain about excessive lead time but accept to wait c) Average service level, inconsistent process times; some delays and complaints or 90% deliveries meet requests d) Good service level, consistent speed and reliable delivery; few complaints or 97% deliveries meet requests e) Top service level, meets high standards; virtually no complaints or over 99% deliveries meet requested datesInfo82. Service/E/Emergencies: How many service emergencies occur? a) One emergency per day or more, keeping 30% resources busy with firefighting b) One emergency per week, requiring 10% resources to solve many problems c) One emergency per month, requiring 3% resources to solve occasional problems d) One emergency per quarter, requiring 1% resources to solve few problems e) One emergency per year or less, requiring 0.1% resources to handle unplanned activitiesInfo83. Service/E/Queue: How many items are waiting in queue for the next step? a) Overflowing inboxes and storage spaces, stacks of unprocessed parts, papers pile up; processes out of control b) Pending work in front of bottlenecks; many jobs take longer than expected, making people work hard to keep up c) Most jobs on time, pending work used to balance load between workdays; few jobs intentionally held as buffers d) Work planned for each workday to available capacity; all assigned tasks must be completed before going home e) Virtually no pending items due to continuous flow; work in queue limited to what is required for the next stepInfo84. Service/E/Relationship: Which statement describes the relationship to external customers and suppliers? a) Difficult and cold, characterized by low tolerance and many complaints; emotional bank account is empty b) Basic understanding of customer needs and supplier capabilities; teams work together to solve problems c) Service level agreements (SLA) with key customers and suppliers; teams help each other beyond problem-solving d) Regular exchange between internal and external teams; several maps (VSM) and agreement (SLA) jointly created e) Teams act as partners, sharing strategies and ownership; high level of trust and strong bonds between peopleInfo85. Service/E/Scheduling: How well is work scheduled and balanced? a) Work characterized by stop and go, backorders, substitutions, rescheduling, troubleshooting, expediting b) Work not uniform or not well planned, requires overtime and buffers to compensate for variations and delays c) Workload and resource requirements are diligently scheduled, but unforeseen issues cause some rescheduling d) Work schedules are leveled by day or week; capacity resource planning (CRP) is stable and rescheduling rare e) Work schedules defined by shift of day, leveled hourly or even continuously by reassigning flexible resourcesInfo86. Solving/E/Alert: How are abnormalities identified and alerts set? a) Most problems remain unnoticed or are ignored until crisis strikes b) Only experts and managers from the area can identify abnormalities before growing to major problems c) Some alerts set for everyone to see, but inconsistent process or limited to few processes only d) Alerts consistently set for all processes in critical path, but not always clear if someone responded or not e) Multi-level alert signals for all key processes indicate problem-solving status: set, responded, solvedInfo87. Solving/E/Authority: Who is formally authorized to stop a major process or large customer order? a) Authority to stop by senior manager; team members keep working unless they are specifically told to stop b) Authority by line manager; team members are expected to find workarounds and only stop for major problems c) Authority by team leader; team members are encouraged to stop for any issue they cannot solve by themselves d) Authority delegated to team members when leader is not present; stop protocol defined and strictly followed e) Authority fully delegated; team members stop anytime for any issue and formally initiate corrective actionsInfo88. Solving/E/Effectiveness: How effectively are problems solved and root-causes eliminated? a) Chronic problems, symptom-treatment and workarounds; 10% problems newly identified and 90% repeat issues b) Problems patched, quick fixes with focus on containment; 25% problems newly identified and 75% repeat issues c) Direct causes addressed with focus on corrective actions, but not always effective; 50% are new and 50% repeat d) Root causes systematically addressed and reoccurrence rate significantly reduced; 75% are new and 25% repeat e) Problems rarely reoccur, most are solved at the prevention level; over 90% are new and less than 10% repeatInfo89. Solving/E/Process: How are problems addressed and how mature is the process? a) Quick fixes and workarounds, reactive approach with symptom treatment, frequent fire-fighting and expediting b) Containment and corrective actions, including rework, reset, repair, replace, return, reschedule, and reissue c) Formal root cause analysis, fishbone and failure-analysis tools actively used by managers and experts at least d) Systematic root-cause elimination with recognition of prevention; evidence of reduced reoccurrence rate e) Problem prediction and prevention is management priority; solutions consistently translated into new standardsInfo90. Solving/E/Quantity: How many problems are formally solved per employee per year? a) Problems are addressed as they come up; no formal problem-solving method defined or used b) Problem-solving process defined but less than 1 problem formally solved per employee per year c) 1 problem formally solved per employee per year, with at least 20% employees involved in the process d) 5 problems formally solved per employee per year, with at least 50% employees involved in the process e) 10 problems formally solved per employee per year, with at least 80% employees involved in the processInfo91. Solving/E/Tools: What tools and techniques are used to systematically solve problems? a) Problem-solving techniques unknown or not regularly practiced; no specific tools used or superficial knowledge b) Simple tools used, such as plan-do-check-act (PDCA) or 5-why template, to address major failures or 10% issues c) Standard problem-solving procedure; key people trained, systematically addressing 50% issues, major and minor d) Problems thoroughly analyzed; FMEA, 8D, DMAIC, or GROW are well understood and applied to address 90% issues e) Robust process; most causes eliminated at first attempt, including personality conflicts and behavioral issuesInfo92. Solving/E/Tracking: How well are problems recorded and risks understood? a) Ad-hoc trouble-shooting or problems not logged; people remember major events and how they handled them b) Informal logging of problems on disconnected boards or spreadsheets; status report not readily available c) System exists to record problems, but inconsistently used or just for major complaints; status report posted d) Central system for internal and external problems; 100+ logged per year; failure statistics reported monthly e) Linked systems for risk analysis (FMEA/RPN), failure prediction (MTBF/MTBR), corrective and preventive actionsInfo93. Solving/E/Triggers: When is a formal root-cause analysis triggered? a) No formal triggers defined; problems are addressed as they come up, initiated by manager or process owner b) Any major event or deviation, such as breakdown, accident, compliance breach, or serious customer complaint c) Any persistent performance gap, 10 red points in a row, incident, near miss, or customer complaint d) Any major deviation over 20%, 5 red points in a row, incident, near miss, complaint, or non-compliant behavior e) Any deviation over limit, 3 red points in a row, 2 downtime events, incident, risk, complaint, or misbehavior Info94. Standards/E/Access: Where are standards stored? How quickly can users access them? a) Standards missing, hidden in drawers and computers, or accessible only by few people b) Standards not easily accessible; require searching or requesting from creator or manager c) Standards outside station, require several minutes walking or retrieving from computer d) Standards in station, accessible within one minute on computer or few steps of walking e) Standards accessible on the spot and in-station with minimal motion, within 10 secondsInfo95. Standards/E/Authority: Who has the authority to improve a process? Who created or revised procedures? a) Owners, directors, or experts, three levels separated from actual work teams b) Managers or experts, two levels separated from work teams, with input from people doing the work c) Supervisors or experts, one level separated from the work teams, with input from people doing the work d) Assigned members of work teams, under guidance of managers or experts, did develop most procedures e) Team members are fully responsible for their own procedures; just validated by a manager or expertInfo96. Standards/E/Content: How effective are work standards? What is the content? a) Basic user manuals from suppliers or uncontrolled process documents; no evidence of standard work in use b) Basic process descriptions, such as quality manual or ISO handbook, mainly used for compliance purposes c) Procedures with pass-fail criteria for each step, describe what to do, how to do, and how to check the result d) Detailed procedures specify steps, flow, quantity, quality, timing; used as basis for efficiency management e) Comprehensive standards specify steps, flow, quality, timing, skills; basis for all measurements, improvementsInfo97. Standards/E/Degree: How many repetitive tasks follow standard procedures? a) People mainly work by instinct or experience, and rarely use written instructions b) Few activities or 10% repetitive tasks follow standards, mainly time and quality-critical tasks c) Main activities or 50% repetitive tasks follow standards; firm procedures in place for all direct labor work d) Most activities or 90% repetitive tasks follow standards; even managers can show their weekly standard agendas e) Most daily and 100% repetitive work follow standards; improvements consistently translated into new standardsInfo98. Standards/E/Discipline: How consistently do people follow standards? What is the level of discipline? a) Standards are considered recommendations, while workers and supervisors follow their own methods of working b) Standards kept and processes followed when things run smoothly, and abandoned in times of stress and overload c) Standards generally followed, strict on external customer and compliance items, more lax on internal practices d) Standards for internal and external work are well defined, broadly understood and followed with few exceptions e) Standards strictly enforced, regularly challenged and updated, consistently high level of execution discipline99. Standards/E/Timing: How well is timing defined? a) Processes lack time standards; the concept of standard work is largely unknown or not commonly applied b) Limits set for few time-critical processes, such as response to customer requests or monthly financial closing c) Process times set for core processes, but not well maintained or not effectively used for planning and manning d) Standard times set in system for most processes, well maintained and effectively used for planning and manning e) Standard times frequently updated, used as basis for costing, resource planning, and efficiency managementInfo100. Standards/E/Update: How often are key processes redesigned and key standards updated? a) Standards are outdated or dormant for 5 years or longer; many work practices differ from written procedures b) Standards are valid but stagnant; procedures are current but most processes unchanged for 3 years or longer c) Standards are updated as needed, after problem or improvement; most procedures are not older than 2 years d) Standards systematically updated; expiration dates enforce formal update every year to improve effectiveness e) All trainings and improvements are based on robust standards; several updates each year keep them currentInfo101. Structure/E/Audit: How often is the housekeeping level (5S) assessed? a) No formal audit; people are expected to keep things organized b) Audit performed quarterly, irregularly, or just before events, such as customer visits c) Regular audit for most areas and scores reported at least monthly d) Weekly audit scores posted for everyone to see; reports not hidden in desks or computers e) Daily organizing by each team; strict and consistent tracking on run-chart, weekly scores posted for all areas102. Structure/E/General: How well is the workplace organized? a) Unsorted; areas look messy, dirty, cluttered; disorder goes along with safety issues, such as cables on floor b) Sorting largely completed; clutter and unnecessary items removed; only items required for work are kept c) Organized level; items stored in optimal locations; areas cleaned up and equipment in perfect working order d) Standardization completed and all storage spaces marked; items kept in assigned places and returned after use e) Organization is culture and housekeeping part of daily activities; structure and discipline consistently high103. Structure/E/Knowledge: How many employees truly understand 5S rules and process? a) 1 of 5 or 20% employees or fewer understand 5S; superficial knowledge or principles unknown b) 2 of 5 or 40% employees can audit and teach 5S; weak knowledge c) 3 of 5 or 60% employees can audit and teach 5S; developing knowledge d) 4 of 5 or 80% employees can audit and teach 5S; good knowledge e) 5 of 5 or 100% employees can audit and teach 5S; solid knowledgeInfo104. Structure/E/Process: How well is the housekeeping process defined and followed? a) Rules not defined or organizational procedures not posted; people are expected to keep their areas organized b) Basic process for cleaning and organizing key areas; simple procedures or checklists for frequently used items c) 5S instructions defined and posted in most areas, but leave room for interpretation or not strictly followed d) 5S standards for all areas, but performance not yet automatic; few deviations require managers to follow-up e) 5S process fully institutionalized and entrenched in culture; automatic performance, no supervision requiredInfo105. Structure/F/Locations: How well are locations defined? a) No identification of territory; unclear what is needed and what not; items stored where space is available b) High-traffic and safety-critical areas, such as aisles and emergency exits, are demarked and kept clear c) Cluster locations defined on surface level, e.g. cabinets and drawers labeled outside but unstructured inside d) Locations defined on item-level for clear separation; over 90% parts and tools kept in standard locations e) A place is defined for each item; even a visitor can recognize abnormal conditions, missing or excess itemsInfo106. Structure/F/Safety: How safe is the factory? a) Poor safety; accidents repeat, hazardous areas freely accessible, exit doors blocked or moving parts unsecured b) Basic safety; compliant with local rules, but cables unsecured on floor or items stored in high traffic areas c) Average level; machines with modern safety features, hot spots contained, and safety gear worn at all times d) Safety above industry average everywhere; equipment and behavior meet high safety standards; LTI/R reported e) Safety culture; everyone is conscious of potential risks; daily safety contacts; TRIFR is key lag indicatorInfo107. Structure/F/System: How many factory areas are under housekeeping control? a) Organizational system not defined (0%); people are expected to keep factory, warehouse, and offices organized b) Organizational system deployed in few critical areas (25%); regular cleaning and organizing of those areas c) Organizational system for main areas (50%); only items used daily kept nearby, others moved out to storage d) Organizational system for all active work areas (75%) with some exclusions, such as offices, parking, basement e) Organizational system fully deployed (100%), covering plant, stores, offices, basement, parking, utility roomInfo108. Teamwork/E/Atmosphere: Which statement best describes the team atmosphere? a) Atmosphere is competitive, defensive, individualistic, or close-minded, not very open to suggestions (NIH) b) General atmosphere of respect, but not all are listening, while some feel unheard or hesitate to ask for help c) Everyone listens to all ideas and feels free to seek help, while some sensitivities remain, not talked about d) Open discussions allow building on ideas and recognizing contributors to shared goals; sensitivities are gone e) Team encourages diverse views, openly tackles emerging issues, always provides and accepts feedback to growInfo109. Teamwork/E/Cohesiveness: How well do people work together? a) People prefer to work by themselves; little interest in collaboration or idea sharing; closed doors are common b) People respect perspectives of others but generally stick to their opinions; send email rather than talking c) People openly discuss problems and options; prefer face-to-face meetings over calling, and calling over email d) People get together to solve performance problems, personality conflicts and behavioral issues as one team e) People depend on and trust each other, treat group over self-interests; open doors and virtually no politicsInfo110. Teamwork/E/Meetings: How effective are team meetings? a) No regular team meetings; people get together mainly for special events, such as employee information meetings b) Meetings held but time wasted from irregular attendance or unclear objectives, lack structure or discipline c) Meetings held regularly with good attendance, but not always effective because weak or missing standards d) Meetings structured and relevant to all members, held regularly without exception, and follow a strict agenda e) Daily meetings considered essential to everyone, participants fully engaged; no meeting is missed or delayedInfo111. Teamwork/E/Response: How quickly do people respond to requests from others? a) Many pending actions or long wait; 1 sigma service level or 70% items delayed, or requirements not clear b) Respond late or requires several reminders to get a response; 2 sigma service level or 30% items delayed c) Respond as needed to agreed priorities, but slow on other items; 3 sigma service level or 7% items delayed d) Respond timely to all requests, consistently meeting requirements; 4 sigma service level or 1% items delayed e) Respond professionally at continuously high level of speed and quality; 5 sigma service level or 0.1% delayedInfo112. Teamwork/E/Systems: What methods and systems are in place to support teamwork? a) Teamwork is expected without specific policies in place, or team rules too generic to hold anyone accountable b) Team structure, org chart, group goals and ground rules are agreed and posted for everyone to see and follow c) Team structure and master calendar in place, allowing members to jointly update critical path requirements d) Goal alignment, task prioritization, work allocation, escalation and feedback process follow standard procedure e) System automatically balances resources with schedules, provides full transparency on skill and availabilityInfo113. Teamwork/E/Workload: How well is workload defined and distributed within each team? a) Work not well defined, some people cherry-pick tasks they like to do; workload allocation not fair or even b) Work roughly defined; key people carry most of the load, compensate for shortcomings and passiveness of others c) Work defined on task level; willingness to share the load but uneven capability still burdens key people d) Everyone is doing their part, skilled people help each other, share the load; allocation considered fair by all e) Team members synchronize their daily schedules to distribute activities with effort on continuous balancing114. Technology/E/Capabilities: How advanced are technical capabilities? a) Core technology in place for many years; technical contractors perform maintenance and upgrades b) Core technology upgraded in recent years, but still not very modern; internal resources keep systems running c) Core technology considered up-to-date; internal specialists dedicated to maintain and improve capabilities d) Modern technology end-to-end; dedicated technology team and budget allow quick deployment of new methods e) Cutting-edge technology designed in house; internal tech teams recognized for their breakthrough innovationsInfo115. Technology/E/Computers: How are computers used to support work? a) Stand-alone computers with generic applications; work is managed using papers, phone, email, spreadsheets b) Computers integrated into networks; shared folders and homegrown tools simplify daily planning and reporting c) Data stored centrally; shared databases and group tools in place, but not mandated or not consistently used d) Central system controls standards and monitors key processes; real-time status displayed on a single screen e) Electronic workflow; one integrated system for resource planning, workflow monitoring, performance managementInfo116. Technology/E/Infrastructure: How well does the infrastructure meet the needs of the business and employees? a) Insufficient; requires patches, workarounds, and homegrown tools to bridge or reduce technology gaps b) Sufficient; disjoint infrastructure projects closed gaps; redundancy and overcapacity likely or not evaluated c) Managed; rationalization and consolidation projects ongoing to address overcapacity and improve utilization d) Aligned; architecture on functional and site-level aligned with enterprise, ensures utilization over 90% e) Flexible; infrastructure scalable to demand and embedded in enterprise architecture; utilization near 100%Info117. Technology/E/IT: What is the role and involvement of IT? a) Provider of community IT services, such as maintaining hard and software; limited involvement in business b) Enabler of services and improvements, but not always meeting user-needs, and reactive response to new projects c) Catalyst initiating operational improvements with proven experiences; proactively developing new IT solutions d) Advisor recommending areas for business impact and delivers overall perspective; leads automation initiatives e) Innovator inspiring transformation and conceiving innovation; applies disruptive forces and leads execution118. Technology/E/Paper: How many papers are required to keep the operation running? a) 10 or more sheets consumed per head per day b) 5 sheets consumed per head per day c) 2 sheets consumed per head per day d) 1 sheet consumed per head per day e) Less than 1 sheet consumed per head per dayInfo119. Technology/F/Automation: What degree of automation is realized in the factory? a) Device level automation (I/O); vehicles, conveyors, forklifts, actuators, lifters, sensors, regulators b) Machine level automation (PLC); inline measurements, programmable actuators, storage and retrieval systems c) System level automation (SCADA); remote access to individual controls, adaptive programming, simple robotics d) Management level automation (MES); intelligent factory with real-time control from single computer terminal e) Enterprise level automation (ERP+); machine learning, neural networks, collaborative robotics, industry 4.0Info120. Timing/E/Absenteeism: How many people are expected to work but absent, on unplanned leave? a) above 8% b) 4% to 8% c) 2% to 4% d) 1% to 2% e) below 1%Info121. Timing/E/Control: How well is rhythm established, time controlled, and discipline managed? a) Attendance unstable; some critical areas unstaffed during core times; break times left to employee discretion b) Attendance recorded but not strictly managed; social breaks are common; work and meetings often start late c) Attendance controlled and schedules regularly updated; work starts promptly and meeting time well managed d) Everyone is conscientious about time; no early stops, next day targets clear, and long days are exceptions e) Time considered valuable resource; carefully budgeted, strictly managed and effectively used; high discipline 122. Timing/E/Planning: How well is work planned, assigned, and managed? a) Hard to predict how long work will take; periods of stress and breakdowns; people seem always in catch-up mode b) Plan loosely defined; high variations between people and days, issues with discipline, or overtime expected c) Plan regularly updated to compensate for variations and delays; extra work and overtime does not exceed 5% d) Plan is solid and rescheduling rare; few variations with workhours occasionally adjusted; extra work below 1% e) Plan with predictable and balanced workload; high execution discipline; minor variations are barely noticeableInfo123. Timing/E/Schedule: How well are schedules defined and commitments met? a) Schedules and deadlines not well defined; time management considered difficult; commitments regularly missed b) Schedules loosely defined; team makes special efforts to meet commitments, but still missing important dates c) Schedules frequently adjusted, while team is able to contain slippage within the customer tolerance range d) Schedules closely tracked and deviations quickly addressed; critical deadlines met with only minor variations e) Schedules with firm deadlines for all planned activities, timing based on standards, performance consistently topInfo124. Timing/E/Tracking: How well is time tracked? a) Processes and projects not systematically tracked against targets; tracking information is missing or outdated b) Basic tracking with focus on pacemaker or bottleneck; data not yet consistent or reports not readily available c) Main processes and projects tracked at least weekly against standards and plans; reports available on demand d) Processes and key projects consistently tracked against schedules and time standards; status updated daily e) Continuous tracking of total cycle time (TCT) or total process time (TPT) with full transparency in real timeInfo125. Timing/F/Pace: How is work in production paced and synchronized with demand? a) Pace is assumed fixed by available capacity; using inventory buffers, overtime, rescheduling to meet demand b) Pace set by central system or standard flow; using inventory buffers and adjusted workhours to meet demand c) Capacity planned based on forecasts and people assigned to the plan; not easy to adjust when demand changes d) Actual demand pattern used for assigning resources; people moved around at least weekly to adjust pace to load e) Pace in sync with demand through entire plant; resources adjusted daily with effort on continuous balancingInfo126. Training/E/Amount: How much time is spent on formal training to build new capabilities? a) 1 day per employee per year, or 0.5% of work hours or less spent on training b) 2 days per employee per year, or 1% of work hours spent on training c) 4 days per employee per year, or 2% of work hours spent training d) 6 days per employee per year, or 3% of work hours spent on training e) 8 days per employee per year, or 4% of work hours or more spent on trainingInfo127. Training/E/Feedback: How do people learn? How to managers develop people and provide feedback? a) Managers expect people to learn by themselves; most interactions are focused on correcting and reporting b) Managers give instructions for people who need help, but have little time left to provide regular feedback c) Managers give constructive feedback in response to a problem, after spending time to understand root causes d) Managers offer on-the-spot coaching; team members receive monthly formal feedback regarding their contribution e) Managers have fixed time slots reserved in their weekly agenda, at least 2 hours blocked for 1:1 coachingInfo128. Training/E/Process: How are skills developed and tracked? a) Learning by doing; new employees gain skills through loose mentorship with experienced people b) Training based on simple process descriptions; skill requirements not well defined or skill scores missing c) Cross-training ongoing; skills consistently tracked against targets; skill matrices in place for most teams d) Cross-training completed and people qualified per skill matrix; core skills doubled and deputies in place e) Continuous training and solid certification program; skill matrices for all employees including senior levelInfo129. Training/E/Qualification: How capable are employees? How many are qualified? a) Most employees generally rely on tribal knowledge, can only perform the tasks they were assigned to do b) Most employees are formally trained and capable to perform multiple jobs in their area or department c) Most employees are qualified per skill-matrix, able to perform all primary tasks in their area or department d) Most employees are fully qualified, able to perform all jobs in their area or department through task rotation e) Employees gain experience in other areas through job rotation; knowledge-transfer is fully institutionalizedInfo130. Training/E/Type: What type of training is provided? a) Training on the job; no formal training program defined or provided; people are expected to learn by osmosis b) Minimal formal education, job inductions and simple presentations; not deep enough to build technical skills c) Sporadic education, specific training for selected people, or attendance is optional; firm budgets allocated d) Ongoing education; program broadly rolled out; attendance required and effectiveness measured by impact or ROI e) Continuous education for all; multi-year program with traceable benefit in attracting and retaining top talentInfo131. Training/E/Versatility: How is the level of skill versatility? How hungry are people to learn new skills? a) Most people prefer to work in one area, to stay where assigned, and not interested in skill versatility b) Most people want to learn new jobs, join classes when offered and recommended, but not self-starting c) Most people initiate learning new skills; requested specific training, ordered books, or formed study groups d) Most people embraced skill flexibility as a personal goal; many participate in job rotations to broaden skills e) Most people take pride in their capability and flexibility; many are certified at master level in their jobsInfo132. Visuals/E/Application: What kind of visual tools are used? a) No visual tools beyond basic forms, such as marked aisles, areas, offices, fire extinguisher, emergency exits b) Information boards display static information, such as company policies, organizational charts, overall status c) Departmental status displayed but insufficient for spot-review, requires printing report or manager to explain d) Workflow visually controlled; signals and charts allow full overview without asking people or touching systems e) Visual management fully utilized to assign resources, control workflow, balance load, and signal abnormalitiesInfo133. Visuals/E/Control: How effective are visual controls? What are they used for? a) Visual signals are missing, outdated or misleading; people rely on experience and reports to control work b) Visual signals trigger tasks, using status lights, scheduling boards, order tags, refill cards, repair tickets c) Visual signals used to control pacemaker process, monitor workflow, and trigger problem-solving activities d) Visual signals for value stream to assign resources, balance load, monitor workflow, solve problems e) Visual signals for value stream and also out-of-cycle work, such as scheduling, refilling, reportingInfo134. Visuals/E/Display: How well is status information displayed? a) Status information missing or outdated; informally documented, not openly displayed, or older than one month b) Status information posted at random locations; insufficient for spot review or too general to take action c) Boards installed at strategic locations, performance tracking is consistent but limited to few core processes d) Dedicated boards for each process and department; information is accurate and updated several times per week e) Boards updated several times per day or real-time status display; key information is transparent at all timesInfo135. Visuals/E/Locations: How many spaces are visually controlled? a) Space freely used and locations not marked, no visual management tools used, or storage not formally assigned b) Few locations demarcated (25%) for inbound or outbound items; need to ask someone from the area to get status c) Key locations demarcated (50%) for inbound and outbound items, work in process, supplies, stores, and archives d) Most locations demarcated (75%) for processes, supplies, stores, archives, and exceptions requiring attention e) All locations demarcated (100%) end-to-end; even visitors can identify status and abnormalities at a glanceInfo136. Visuals/E/Signals: What status signals are used and where? a) Basic alarm signals from infrastructure, mainly compliance and safety-related, for fire, gas, access breach b) Simple signaling devices broadly used; flags, lights, system messages inform of abnormal operating conditions c) Standard signaling devices or dashboard for key processes; traffic lights indicate running, idling, alarm, off d) Standard signaling devices or dashboard for all processes and systems in critical path, including office teams e) Standard signals also used by managers and experts to inform of their live status: available, busy, travelingInfo137. Visuals/F/Tagging: How often is tagging used to determine usefulness of items? a) Tagging not known or not practiced b) Basic red tags used to alert of abnormalities: safety hazards, equipment awaiting repair, items in quarantine c) Red tag broadly applied and containment areas actively used, holding questionable items awaiting decisions d) Regular tagging event scheduled or trigger set, for example when 5S score falls below 2, tagging is required e) Tagging consistently practiced by all employees; as soon as an abnormality is identified, a red tag is applied Info138. Compass/E: How involved are the wider project stakeholders (i.e. Sponsor, Process Owner and other stakeholders) in the project? Only the project leaders and project teams are involved Project Sponsors and Project Leaders have discussions on an irregular basis. Process Owners are included in some tollgate reviews on an ad hoc basis Project Sponsors have regular discussions with Project Leaders in all projects. Process Owners and other project stakeholders are included in all tollgate reviews of their projects Project Sponsors are actively involved throughout the projects. Process owners and project stakeholders give input and influence the direction of their projects at all relevant points in the project, not just tollgate reviews Project Sponsor, Process owner and project stakeholders are intimately involved with the project and actively provide input and direction throughout the projectInfo139. Compass/E: How well are project experiences shared? Project learnings are not shared Occasional sharing sessions organised on a project by project basis Process in place within the site to regularly share key learnings from improvement projects An effective process is in place within the site to regularly share key learnings from improvement projects. This has led to other site projects achieving their goals more quickly and effectively An effective process is in place within the site and with other sites to regularly share key learnings from improvement projects. This has led to other projects across Givaudan achieving their goals more quickly and effectivelyInfo140. Compass/E: How well aligned and integrated are your site's improvement plans with the Personal Objectives (Engage) process? Only the very major projects appear in some people's objectives on a largely ad hoc basis The main projects of the site are included in the Project Leader's objectives The main projects of the site are included in the objectives of the Project Leaders and Project Sponsors The main projects of the site are included in the objectives of the Project Leaders, Sponsors and Team members Personal objectives form an integral part of the continuous improvement process and are fully aligned with the all the site OIP portfolio of projects as well as all the other aspects of the site's Continuous Improvement RoadmapInfo141. Compass/E: How well are opportunities and major issues escalated up to the OIP management team from work areas and workstations? Only some crisis issues or major gaps tend to be escalated to site management team Most major issues and opportunities have been investigated and discussed for inclusion in the OIP All major issues and opportunities have been investigated and discussed, and further issues and ideas for potential projects are regularly sought for incorporation into the OIP A process has been established to ensure all major issues and promising improvement opportunities to be regularly evaluated and incorporated into the OIP An effective process and communication channels have been established to and from all levels of the site that allow timely, pro-active escalation of all potential issues and opportunitiesInfo142. Compass/E: How involved are the wider stakeholders in RIEs? Only the event leaders and event teams are involved Event Sponsors sometimes participate in events. Process Owners are included in the event on an ad hoc basis Project Sponsors, Process Owners participate in all respective events Project Sponsors are actively involved throughout the event. Process owners and other stakeholders participate in all respective events Project Sponsor, Process owner and project stakeholders are intimately involved with the event and actively provide input and direction throughoutInfo143. Compass/E: How well are RIE experiences shared? RIE learnings are not shared Occasional sharing sessions organised on an ad hoc basis Process in place within the site to regularly share key learnings from RIEs An effective process is in place within the site to regularly share key learnings from RIEs. This has led to other site RIEs achieving their goals more quickly and effectively An effective process is in place within the site and with other sites to regularly share key learnings from RIEs. This has led to other RIEs across Givaudan achieving their goals more quickly and effectivelyInfo144. Compass/E: How well are CI tools and methodologies understood and applied by the event leaders? No formal training for RIE leaders, events don't follow established methodologies Some RIEs are led by leaders trained in the CI methodology, but most supported by a CI expert Most event leaders are trained in CI. Most RIEs now employ CI methodologies as standard All event leaders are trained in CI. All RIEs employ CI methodologies rigorously and effectively All event leaders are certified in CI and continuously improving their CI competencies. They are actively teaching CI principles to event team members . All RIEs employ CI methodologies rigorously and effectivelyInfoWho did the audit? Enter the names of all participants, separated by comma. Click "Done" to submit your inputs and calculate the result. Questions must be answered in one session. 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